From - Sun Aug 6 01:13:21 2000 Path: rQdQ!sn-xit-02!supernews.com!nntp-relay.ihug.net!ihug.co.nz!logbridge.uoregon.edu!hardy.tc.umn.edu!ns1.mathforum.com!forum.mathforum.com!gateway From: pharvey@derwent.co.uk (Paul Harvey) Newsgroups: sci.math Subject: IMO problem 2 Date: 4 Aug 2000 15:22:55 -0400 Organization: The Math Forum Lines: 12 Sender: daemon@forum.mathforum.com Message-ID: NNTP-Posting-Host: forum.mathforum.com X-Unparseable-Date: 4 Xref: rQdQ sci.math:395068 Does there exist an elegant solution to IMO #2, that is Let abc = 1, a,b,c are +ve reals (a-1+1/b)(b-1+1/c)(c-1+1/a)<=1 Only by expanding fully, and arguing several different cases (a>1, b<1, c<1 etc. ) can I see a solution. I expect there's a more elegant way, but I can't see it. Paul